Who was recently selected as the ICC Women’s T20I Cricketer of the Year 2023?
See answer
Correct answer: (C) Hayley Matthews (West Indies) The ICC Women's T20I Cricketer of the Year for 2023 was Hayley Matthews of the West Indies, an all-rounder effective with both bat and ball.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 52
Who was crowned Miss World 2024 in Mumbai?
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Correct answer: (A) Miss Czech, Kristina Pyszková
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 53
In which country will the Clean Energy Investor Forum be organised by IPEF?
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Correct answer: (B) Singapore The Clean Energy Investor Forum of the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) was held in Singapore.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 54
India has acquired the right to operate the foreign Sittwe Port. It is in which country?
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Correct answer: (C) Myanmar Sittwe port is in the Rakhine province of Myanmar, and India has got the right to operate it. It is part of the Kaladan project, which will link north-east India to the sea.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 55
The mangrove forest of the Ganga Delta is called:
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Correct answer: (A) Sunderban The tidal forests of the Ganga–Brahmaputra delta are called the Sundarbans, named after the sundari tree. They are also a famous home of the tiger.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 56
Which river frequently changes its course of flow in Bihar?
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Correct answer: (B) Kosi The Kosi shifts its channel again and again and lays down heavy silt, which is why it is called the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 57
Plant roots get water from soil as:
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Correct answer: (C) Capillary water Roots draw the water held by capillarity in the fine spaces between soil particles. Hygroscopic water clings to the particles too tightly for the roots to pull it away.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 58
How much larger is the equatorial diameter than the polar diameter?
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Correct answer: (B) 43 km The Earth is flattened at the poles, so its equatorial diameter is about 43 kilometres greater than the polar. That is why the Earth is called an oblate spheroid rather than a perfect sphere.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 59
At which longitude is Indian Standard Time (IST) taken?
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Correct answer: (A) 82.5° E Indian Standard Time is taken at 82°30′ E longitude, which passes near Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh and is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 60
In India, to whom is the credit for the ‘Green Revolution’ given?
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Correct answer: (B) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 61
The highest mountain peak of India is known as:
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Correct answer: (B) Kanchenjunga The highest peak within India's own borders is Kanchenjunga (8,586 m). Everest stands on the Nepal–China border and K-2 in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, so neither counts as an Indian peak.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 62
The Indian continent was earlier part of:
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Correct answer: (A) Gondwanaland The Indian peninsula was once part of the great southern continent of Gondwanaland. Pangaea was the still older single landmass, which later split into Laurasia and Gondwanaland.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 63
Who led the Revolt of 1857 in Bihar?
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Correct answer: (B) Kunwar Singh The 1857 revolt in Bihar was led by Kunwar Singh of Jagdishpur, who took on the British at the age of eighty. Tatya Tope and Nana Saheb were active in central India.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 64
The spiritual side of nationalism was voiced by:
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Correct answer: (C) Swami Vivekananda Swami Vivekananda gave nationalism a spiritual ground, seeing India's soul in its culture and religion. His ideas awakened self-respect among the young.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 65
Which newspaper propagated strong nationalist views during India’s freedom struggle?
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Correct answer: (B) Amrit Bazar Patrika The ‘Amrit Bazar Patrika’ spread strong nationalist views during the freedom struggle. The ‘Pioneer’ and the ‘Statesman’ were pro-British papers.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 66
Who intervened in a dispute between the workers and mill owners of Ahmedabad in 1918?
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Correct answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi In 1918 Mahatma Gandhi intervened in the dispute between the workers and the mill owners of Ahmedabad, and brought about a settlement by going on a hunger strike.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 67
Name the left-wing leader of the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha who popularised it in Bihar.
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Correct answer: (A) Karyanand Sharma The left-wing leader Karyanand Sharma did the most to turn the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha into a mass movement, organising the peasants of the Munger region.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 68
The Muddiman Committee was appointed to report on the working of:
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Correct answer: (A) Dyarchy The Muddiman Committee was appointed in 1924 to examine the working of the dyarchy introduced by the Act of 1919.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 69
“He was a great unifier in India who taught us not only bare tolerance of others but the willing acceptance of them as our friends and comrades in common undertakings.” Who said it?
See answer
Correct answer: (C) Rajendra Prasad The remark is about Dr Rajendra Prasad, who taught not bare tolerance but the willing acceptance of others. He was India's first President.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 70
Who proceeded to organise the Provisional Government of Free India outside the country?
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Correct answer: (C) Subhash Chandra Bose The Provisional Government of Free India—the Azad Hind government—was proclaimed by Subhas Chandra Bose at Singapore on 21 October 1943. The government Raja Mahendra Pratap set up at Kabul in 1915 was called the Provisional Government of India, and Rash Behari Bose built the Indian Independence League and the INA, whose leadership he later handed to Subhas Chandra Bose.
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 71
Assertion A: Physical Education contributes to cultural integration by bringing individuals from different cultures together. Reason R: Sports and physical activities provide opportunities for participants to learn about customs, traditions, and ways of life of others.
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Correct answer: (A) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 72
What does movement education emphasize regarding individuals’ solutions to problems?
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Correct answer: (C) Self-exploration and freedom
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 73
According to Delbert Oberteuffer, what is Physical Education?
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Correct answer: (C) An integral part of the total educational process
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 74
Match the following to analyse the impact of cultural inclusivity on physical education programmes: i) Traditional games from different cultures; ii) Multilingual instruction; iii) Inclusive dance forms; iv) Adaptive sports for diverse abilities. a) Cultural understanding; b) Skill diversity; c) Social cohesion; d) Cognitive development.
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Correct answer: (E) None of the above
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 75
How does the integration of e-sports in physical education contribute to skill development?
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Correct answer: (C) It enhances cognitive and strategic skills
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 76
In Olympic Value Education, what is the underlying principle of the value “Pursuit of Excellence”?
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Correct answer: (B) Continuous self-improvement and reaching one’s personal best
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 77
How does the Olympic value of “Fair Play” extend beyond sportsmanship in educational settings?
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Correct answer: (C) Promotes ethical decision-making and integrity
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 78
Match the following, keeping in mind how Olympic values align with the goals of education: i) Joy of Effort; ii) Fair Play; iii) Respect for Others; iv) Pursuit of Excellence. a) Moral values; b) Physical fitness; c) Character development; d) Social interaction.
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Correct answer: (B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 79
Assertion A: Olympic education fosters cultural exchange and understanding. Reason R: Exposure to diverse cultures through Olympic values promotes global citizenship.
See answer
Correct answer: (A) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 80
Which of the following is correct regarding the role of Olympism in shaping values in education?
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Correct answer: (B) Olympism promotes respect and friendship
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 81
Explain the role of yoga in promoting mental well-being and its potential impact on preventing lifestyle diseases.
Correlate different yoga practices with their potential benefits in preventing lifestyle diseases: i) Asanas; ii) Pranayama; iii) Meditation; iv) Yoga Nidra. a) Improved flexibility and posture; b) Stress reduction and enhanced respiratory function; c) Increased mindfulness and emotional well-being; d) Enhanced relaxation and better sleep.
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Correct answer: (A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 83
Explore the connection between specific lifestyle diseases and corresponding yoga practices that can help manage or prevent them: i) Hypertension; ii) Diabetes; iii) Anxiety and stress; iv) Insomnia. a) Meditation; b) Surya Namaskar (Sun Salutation); c) Pranayama (breath control); d) Yoga for relaxation and Yoga Nidra.
See answer
Correct answer: (E) None of the above
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 84
Explain how integrating yoga philosophy in education can contribute to preventing lifestyle diseases.
See answer
Correct answer: (B) Yoga philosophy fosters a holistic approach, promoting self-awareness, mindfulness and healthy lifestyle choices
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 85
Provide insights into the potential effects of meditation in yoga on preventing mental health disorders.
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Correct answer: (D) More than one of the above
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 86
Explain the importance of adapted physical education for CWSN in fostering their overall development.
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Correct answer: (B) Adapted physical education enhances motor skills, social interaction and self-esteem in CWSN
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 87
Correlate specific disabilities with appropriate adaptations in physical education for CWSN: i) Visual impairment; ii) Intellectual disability; iii) Mobility impairment; iv) Hearing impairment. a) Modified equipment and tactile cues; b) Auditory cues and simplified instructions; c) Braille materials and sensory activities; d) Individualized instruction and visual aids.
See answer
Correct answer: (C) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 88
Explore the connection between different types of disabilities and appropriate sports or physical activities for CWSN: i) Autism spectrum disorder; ii) Cerebral palsy; iii) Down syndrome; iv) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. a) Swimming and water-based activities; b) Team sports with modified rules; c) Yoga and rhythmic activities; d) Individual sports with clear instructions.
See answer
Correct answer: (A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 89
Provide insights into the potential benefits of inclusive sports competitions for CWSN in mainstream schools.
See answer
Correct answer: (B) Inclusive sports competitions enhance social skills, self-confidence and peer relationships in CWSN
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 90
Provide insights into the role of adapted physical education in addressing the unique needs of children with intellectual disabilities.
See answer
Correct answer: (C) Adapted physical education individualizes instruction, enhances motor skills and promotes social interaction in children with intellectual disabilities
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 91
During intense weightlifting sessions, an athlete experiences muscle fatigue and cramping. Analyse the potential nutritional deficiency causing these issues.
See answer
Correct answer: (A) Magnesium deficiency
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 92
Assertion A: The timing of nutrient intake is crucial for optimizing sports performance. Reason R: Consuming carbohydrates post-workout replenishes glycogen stores more effectively than pre-workout.
See answer
Correct answer: (A) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 93
Provide insights into the role of sleep in the recovery and overall wellness of athletes.
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Correct answer: (B) Quality sleep enhances recovery, immune function and mental well-being in athletes
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 94
Correlate different components of physical fitness with their contributions to overall health: i) Cardiovascular fitness; ii) Muscular strength; iii) Flexibility; iv) Body composition. a) Improved bone density and joint health; b) Efficient metabolism and weight management; c) Enhanced endurance and heart health; d) Reduced risk of chronic diseases.
See answer
Correct answer: (C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 95
Elaborate on the significance of cross-training in achieving well-rounded physical fitness.
See answer
Correct answer: (B) Cross-training enhances cardiovascular fitness and muscular strength, and reduces the risk of overuse injuries
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 96
Elaborate on the role of self-assessment in student development and its contribution to cultivating metacognitive skills.
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Correct answer: (B) Self-assessment fosters reflection, self-awareness and metacognitive skills, enhancing student learning and autonomy
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 97
Investigate the drawbacks and benefits of standardized testing.
See answer
Correct answer: (D) More than one of the above
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 98
Examine the suitability of different types of tests for Physical Education objectives: i) Objective tests; ii) Subjective tests; iii) Performance tests; iv) Aptitude tests. a) Assess higher-order thinking skills and problem-solving abilities; b) Measure knowledge of specific facts and recall; c) Evaluate practical skills and application of knowledge; d) Gauge attitudes, interests and values.
See answer
Correct answer: (E) None of the above
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 99
Explain the significance of formative assessments in the context of Physical Education.
See answer
Correct answer: (D) More than one of the above
1 marks · 2024 · Set E
Question 100
Arrange the steps of skill-test construction in ascending order: a) Establish exact procedures for administering and scoring the test; b) Analyse the game or physical qualities; c) Determine reliability and compute objectivity; d) Establish validity; e) Select test items that measure desired qualities.